I’ve tried asking a similar question and read threads, but can’t get my head around implications. I’m going to try being specific as I’m so confused! I’m really trying to work out CGT implications for the following scenario
* Property A purchased for $530k in 2017, PPR until 2020 when I moved into my partners house. Has been rented since. Now valued at 1mil.
* Property B (partners house) he purchased in 2005 for 300k. In 2020 valued at 650k
* I’m planning on selling a 50% share of A to my partner to pay down our PPR, using main residence and 6 year rule (CGT exempt I believe). This will be an investment property going forward
*we will continue in Property B as PPR for at least the next 7 years.
Question: will there be CGT implications when we want to downsize and sell Property B in 7-10 years?