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Digger85(Newbie)Newbie
13 Oct 2021

Hi all. Just wondering on the cost base of a twice inherited property. The property was acquired by the original deceased pre-1985. It was then inherited in 2014. For current owner, we will use the Market Value at this point for their cost base. If the current owner leaves this property to the beneficiaries of their estate, does the acquisition date get re-triggered to D.O.D of current owner, or carried from the original owner's D.O.D (being 2014)? Many thanks for any assistance.

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Bruce4Tax(Taxicorn)Taxicorn
13 Oct 2021

carried from the original owner's D.O.D (being 2014) - because it can be thought of as inheriting the cost base with the property.

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Bruce4Tax(Taxicorn)Taxicorn
13 Oct 2021

carried from the original owner's D.O.D (being 2014) - because it can be thought of as inheriting the cost base with the property.

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