Hi,
Woudl be great to get your help with this question if possible.
Husband and wife have owned an investment property since 1984 (ie pre 1985 and therefore not subject to CGT). They are 50/50 joint tenants.
Wife passed away in 2019. Husband now owns 100% of the property. If husband sells wife's 50% to a third party, is the cost base property value at at 2019 x 50% ownership interest? Would that leave husband with his 50% which remains a pre CGT asset so that when he eventually comes to sell that 50% the gain is not taxable?
Thank you