Hi All,
If A and D are incorrect below, please explain why.
I have $5 capital at start of current financial year.
I have 0 of XYZ shares and I then buy 5 of XYZ shares for $1 each in current financial year. $0 brokerage fee for simplicity. Total cost: $5
At end of current financial year XYZ shares rose to $2.5 a share.
I sell 2 of XYZ shares and get $5 capital in current financial year. $0 brokerage fee for simplicity.
I have exactly $5 capital at end of current financial year = what I had in capital at start of current financial year.
Question:
How much CG did I make in current financial year if the above are the only Capital events?
A) $0. I have exactly $5 at start and end of current financial year, made $0 capital gain. However any XYZ shares I sell in future financial years (even if the shares decrease to $0.001) will be reported as capital gains and subjected to CGT.
B) $3. I originally bought 2 of XYZ shares for $1. (Sell event: 2 x $2.5 = $5) - (Buy event: 2 X $1 = $2) = $3. Future financial years are calculated the same way (sell price x unit - buy price x unit).
C) $5. Sale of my 2 XYZ shares this financial year gave me $5 capital. Future financial years are accounted for in the same way. NOTE: I'm thinking this is definitely incorrect answer but including for completeness.
D) Both A and B are correct as long as future years are accounted for accordingly per A/B correspondingly.