If someone was living in his/her ppor for past 4 years and has an investment property as well for past two years which was rented. Now the ppor has been sold and he/she is moving in the investment property (which will be their ppor from now). How the CGT on the property will be treated keeping in mind that the person sells the property in next 2 years? What will be the cost base for selling the investment property (ppor now)? is the actual cost when they acquired the property or the valuation of the property on the date it became ppor?

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