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thind_21(Newbie)Newbie
11 Oct 2021

If someone was living in his/her ppor for past 4 years and has an investment property as well for past two years which was rented. Now the ppor has been sold and he/she is moving in the investment property (which will be their ppor from now). How the CGT on the property will be treated keeping in mind that the person sells the property in next 2 years? What will be the cost base for selling the investment property (ppor now)? is the actual cost when they acquired the property or the valuation of the property on the date it became ppor?

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446 views
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JodieR_ATO(Community Support)Community Support
ATO Certified Response12 Oct 2021

Hi @thind_21, As the 2nd property was immediately used as an investment property, the purchase price will be used when calculating the cost base for CGT. If the person has now made it their main residence, a partial exemption will apply when they eventually sell or dispose of the property. This takes into account the no' of days it was not their main residence, over the no' of days they owned the property. Partial exemption = Total capital gain x (non-main residence days/total ownership days). Calculating your CGT - https://www.ato.gov.au/individuals/capital-gains-tax/calculating-your-cgt/

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Most helpful replyATO Certified Response

JodieR_ATO(Community Support)Community Support
ATO Certified Response12 Oct 2021

Hi @thind_21, As the 2nd property was immediately used as an investment property, the purchase price will be used when calculating the cost base for CGT. If the person has now made it their main residence, a partial exemption will apply when they eventually sell or dispose of the property. This takes into account the no' of days it was not their main residence, over the no' of days they owned the property. Partial exemption = Total capital gain x (non-main residence days/total ownership days). Calculating your CGT - https://www.ato.gov.au/individuals/capital-gains-tax/calculating-your-cgt/

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