G'day,
I am hoping someone can verify that my approach is correct.
At the end of the income tax year, Units in an AMIT ETF cost bases are adjusted by the AMIT cost base net amount (up if Shortfall, down if excess).
If some Units are sold during the year then the adjustment happens for those Units prior to selling.
This seems to imply that the adjustment is apportioned equally over all the units regardless of time of selling (or purchasing).
My question is if a trust does 2 distributions during the year (dec 31, jun 30), and the Units are sold prior to the first distribution or are sold after the first distribution makes no difference. Likewise if more Units are acquired after the first distribution, they also fully participate in the apportionment.
so the formula is...
Per Unit cost base adjustment = AMIT cost base net amount from AMMA Tax Statement / (Units held at beginning of tax year + Units acquired during the tax year)
Only after doing that the capital gains on the sold Units can be determined.
Or am I missing something.
NOTE for completeness not CGT Event E10 involved. no cost base reduces to zero.
thanks, pjay