I have read previous questions stating that novated leased vehicles are not considering to be 'owned or leased' by the taxpayer and that claiming expenses would be double dipping when the lease payments are salary sacrificed from pre-tax salary.
Can I please confirm if this is still the case when lease (and running cost) payments are made from post-tax salary.
It seems confusing when the vehicle is registered and insurance in the employee name and they are paying PAYG on the amount used for lease payments.
I would appreciate a fresh, current update please, I have read teh existing replies on old, slightly different questions. Thanks
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