I am hoping to see if I am correct with my understanding of the relevant available tax rules.
If a property that was purchased in 2004 as a main residence is then used for income producing purposes as an investment property in 2007 my understanding is the following can be applied:
- According to ITAA 1997 s118-192 (2), special rule for main residence first use to produce income, "You are taken to have acquired the dwelling or your ownership interest at the income time for its market value at that time.
So in 2007 the market value is the new cost based and the reset acquisition date.
In 2016 the property is subdivided into 3 lots and investment units built on each new titled lot which are also rented out.
One of these units is then sold, so a capital gain is crystallised.
When determining cost base of subdivided properties is states the acquistion date is the date of the original purchase. However in this scenario, we are taken to have acquired the property when it was first used for income producing purposes at the market value at that time (2007).
With land and main residence property holdings, the above special rule doesn’t apply so in the event of subdivision the land acquisition has to be the original date of purchase – the original acquisition.
I cant see any scenarios or examples that show the cost base requirements when a subdivided property has also been eligible for the special ruling allowing the cost base reset?