Hi Taxduck, thanks for your reply.
What you have suggested in your sentence, "The simplest way...." is what I suggested to my Accountants and they have told me this is incorrect.
Broadly speaking, I thought that the Adjusted Cost Base would be calculated as follows.
i) Purchase Price: $ 650,000
ii) Capital Works Costs (paid by me): $ 18,000
iii) Capital Allowance Asset Costs (Paid by me): $ 20,000
iv) Capital Works Costs claimed $ 10,000
v) Capital Allowance Asset Costs claimed $ 8,000
Adjusted Cost Base = (i) + (ii) + (iii) - (iv) - (v)
My Accountants are telling me the Adjusted Cost Base = (i) +(ii) - (iv) - (v)
I am fully in agreement that anything that has been depreciated can't be claimed, since they have already been claimed in previous tax years. I have never depreciated any fixtures and fittings that were part of the house when I first purchased it.
I am only trying to understand why the outstanding unclaimed Capital Allowance Asset amount of $12,000 does not have some write off or disposal, either used in the calculation of the adjusted cost base, or accounted for in some other area of the Tax Return.
Thanks. If I am still misunderstanding your reply, please let me know. Am I wrong in my expectation on how the adjusted cost base should be calculated.