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hariza(Enthusiast)Enthusiast
25 Feb 2025


Hi,


I got a question if I my taxable income is 220k and I get deducted in taxes is 65k and I got a investment property with deductions close to 20k how much of those 20k I spent in my investment property will I get back from the tax applying the negative gear.

thanks.

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5 replies
993 views
5 replies

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YellowPotato(Taxicorn)Taxicorn
25 Feb 2025

Assuming those are deductions and not cost base, marginal tax rate (highest tax rates you are paying) x the loss.

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YellowPotato(Taxicorn)Taxicorn
25 Feb 2025

Depends on what you mean by 'investment property' and 'deductions'.


Generally, negative gearing is when an incoming producing asset has more expenses than income, a loss, and the loss is used to offset against other income. Rental properties are a common example. The tax saving of a negative geared property vs not having a negative geared property, would be your marginal tax rate x the loss.

hariza(Enthusiast)Enthusiast
25 Feb 2025

Hi again,


Thanks a lot for responding. This is great. Now sorry but I am a bit silly when it comes to numbers so assuming those 20K I am referring are proper expenses so If I incurred in a loss so based on my scenario what would the formula I can apply to get an idea how much tax saving will be.

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