we have property A, which we bought and lived in.
we later bought property B and moved into it. property A was leased.
we elected to treat property A as our main residence at all times (<6 years). So we understand that despite it being negatively geared, it won’t attract CGT when sold. Is this correct?
we currently have property B on the market and expect to sell soon. Property B is a CGT asset with no main residence. Can I claim rent/rates/holding costs in my cost base for the sale?
any help is much appreciated