Hi all,
We’re looking at selling one of our work vehicles to an employee. The plan is to sell it to them for the same amount we were offered as a trade-in, which we believe represents fair market value.
The employee has asked to pay for the car over a short period via a salary sacrifice arrangement (pre-tax deductions from their pay). We’re happy with that in principle and would document it properly upfront.
From my reading:
- The sale would be at market value, with the car transferred immediately to the employee — so no ongoing use or benefit is provided.
- The salary sacrifice arrangement is just the repayment mechanism (no loan, no waived debt).
- The ATO states there's no restriction on the types of benefits that can form part of a salary sacrifice, as long as they reduce future remuneration.
- Loan FBT shouldn't apply because there's no cash lent or interest benefit.
So to me, these are two separate events:
- A market-value property sale (no FBT),
- A salary sacrifice arrangement to pay for the purchase (pre-tax).
Just checking if others agree or if there’s a reason this wouldn’t be compliant?
Thanks!