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Dansel(Newbie)Newbie
12 Aug 2025

I would appreciate if you could please confirm the following regarding Capital Gains.

Residential rental property in one person’s name constructed in 2002 and purchased for $400,000. Depreciation has been applied by accountant and at the time of death of that person the property is worth $700,000. My understanding is that the child who inherits the property and continues to use it as a residential rental property, starts the Capital Gains from zero with a valuation of $700,000 with no Capital Gains in that child’s name.

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4 replies
329 views
4 replies

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RefundOrBust(Enthusiast)Enthusiast
13 Aug 2025

Have to disagree with Mach, sorry!


When someone inherits a property, the CGT cost base is generally reset to the property’s market value at the date of the deceased’s death. This applies whether the property was the deceased’s main residence or an investment property, provided it was acquired by the deceased on or after 20 September 1985, which obvi relevant in this case.

In your scenario, the inherited cost base would be $700,000 (market value at date of death). Any future capital gain or loss will be calculated from that figure, not from the original $400,000 purchase price.


However, there are two points to be aware of:

-If the property continues to be used as a rental property, you will need to adjust the cost base for any depreciation you claim after inheriting it, this reduces the cost base and can increase the eventual capital gain.

-The reset does not erase the fact that the property is a taxable asset going forward, so when it’s sold, CGT will apply based on the increase from the $700,000 value (less costs, plus/minus any cost base adjustments).



So yes, you effectively ‘start from zero’ at $700,000, but depreciation and future improvements will still affect the final CGT calculation.


Reference: kick ass accountant


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Most helpful reply

RefundOrBust(Enthusiast)Enthusiast
13 Aug 2025

Have to disagree with Mach, sorry!


When someone inherits a property, the CGT cost base is generally reset to the property’s market value at the date of the deceased’s death. This applies whether the property was the deceased’s main residence or an investment property, provided it was acquired by the deceased on or after 20 September 1985, which obvi relevant in this case.

In your scenario, the inherited cost base would be $700,000 (market value at date of death). Any future capital gain or loss will be calculated from that figure, not from the original $400,000 purchase price.


However, there are two points to be aware of:

-If the property continues to be used as a rental property, you will need to adjust the cost base for any depreciation you claim after inheriting it, this reduces the cost base and can increase the eventual capital gain.

-The reset does not erase the fact that the property is a taxable asset going forward, so when it’s sold, CGT will apply based on the increase from the $700,000 value (less costs, plus/minus any cost base adjustments).



So yes, you effectively ‘start from zero’ at $700,000, but depreciation and future improvements will still affect the final CGT calculation.


Reference: kick ass accountant


Dansel(Newbie)Newbie
25 Aug 2025

Following on from my first post, that the cost base would be $700,000 when the property passes to the child. Does this mean that if the child elects to sell the property for $700,000, than there would be no capital gains tax payble by that child. I understand that the purchaser would be liable for stamp duty.

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Capital Gains on inherited rental property | ATO Community