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rs3sekar(Newbie)Newbie
7 Nov 2025

Hi All,

I have two investment loans (IL-01 & IL-02), one for each investment property (IP-X & IP-Y), with two separate banks (A & B).

Say, IL-01 (IP-X is its security) is with Bank A,

IL-02 (IP-Y is its security) is with Bank B.


The LVR of IL-01 is comparatively low (have equity that can be used) and so I intend to refinance the IL-01 to Bank B, borrowing more against IP-X but planning to use that extra funds to clear the other IL-02 with Bank B.


After this consolidation,

I will not be a Customer of Bank A.

The overall outstanding loan amount will remain the same; just that IP-Y will not have any mortgage.

I will have only one Investment Loan, IL-03 with Bank B.


I assume the whole amount of IL-03 will be tax deductible. Anything else to know about this, before I proceed further?


Thx in advance!

57 views
4 replies
57 views
4 replies

All replies

MPrivate(Superuser)Superuser
8 Nov 2025

Hi,

not quite clear, if the goal is to refinance IL-1 from A to B, why IL-2 needs to be paid out?


rs3sekar(Newbie)Newbie
8 Nov 2025

Hi,

Thx for the time to read through & reply. It's not a need to pay out IL-02, but just my preference.


These are the my intentions:

  • To consolidate the loans.
  • To have one property "mortgage-free" and
  • Maybe sell IP-Y if & when I get a very good offer.

NikkiATO(Community Moderator)Community Moderator
11 Nov 2025

Hi @rs3sekar,


Sounds like the whole amount of IL-03 should remain tax deductible. The key principle is that interest deductibility follows the original purpose of the funds, not the loan structure.


Since both your original loans (IL-01 and IL-02) were used to purchase investment properties, refinancing IL-01 and using the extra funds to pay out IL-02 doesn't change this. The consolidated loan IL-03 should still be considered as being used for income-producing purposes.


You'll need to keep records showing how the funds were originally used. 

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