A question popped up in my head.
I'm buying and investment property. Bank knows that and is happy to structure the loan as owner occupied. Will that affect my ability to claim interest deductions in the future? My understanding here is that the loan matter is between me and the bank, and if the bank is ok with it, then it's fine. As long as the property is used as an investment property it's fine to claim interest deductions regardless of the nature of the loan.
Am I correct?