"If you and your sister are on title, you’d be treated as the owners for tax purposes. This is regardless of who paid the mortgage." This statement seems a bit definitive when the poster has said that in substance the property was their parents? The PBRs I linked to give OP an idea of the concept, show that in some cases, beneficial ownership and issues such as who pays the mortgage, have outweighed who is on the legal title, so on the facts presented, I don't think a conclusion can be reached that that would definitely be the case if this poster was to apply for their own PBR.
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