Property was purchased on 07/04/1983. Mum and dad owned 50/50 joint tenant.
Mum passes away 31/12/1991. Mums 50% gets transferred to Dad 30/04/1992.(post CGT)
Dad now owns 50% of his pre CGT and 50% of post CGT. Dad passed away on 01/11/2006.
Up until this date property is principal place of residence. From 2008 up until 2024 property is rented.
2 brothers inherits the property and plan to sell.
I know the cost base is the market value of the asset on the day deceased died.
Question
Does mums date of death on 31/12/1991 has any bearing on the cost base? Should it be ignored and cost base becomes market value of dads date of death?