my daughter in law owns the original house and an investment property. When they seperated 5 years ago he moved into the investment property and paid rent but they agreed that if he raised an amount equal to what she paid for the property (by a gift from me) she would transfer the investment property to him.
The separation was amicable and my son made no claim on her assets.
I am now prepared to make that gift by a disposal of some of my assets and will have to pay CGT.
What are the CGT implications for them on the properties.