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true_girt(Newbie)Newbie
27 May 2024

Hello,

I own two investment properties in Australia. Currently, I owe $260,000 on the property 1 and $200,000 on the property 2. I am considering refinancing the property 1 to increase the loan amount to $360,000. My plan is to use the additional $100,000 obtained from this refinancing to pay down the loan on the property 2, reducing its outstanding amount to $100,000.


I intend to move the money this financial year (FY23/24) while both properties are income-producing assets.


Subsequently, I am planning to move into the property 2 in January 2025 and make it my primary residence.


I would like to understand if there are any potential tax implications or issues with this strategy. Specifically, I am concerned about how moving into the property 2 might affect my tax deductions or any other tax-related considerations.

Thank you for your assistance.

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3 replies
2,950 views
3 replies

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Most helpful reply

Taxduck(Taxicorn)Taxicorn
27 May 2024

Nothing would change with interest deductions for property 1. Still only able to claim the original borrowed amount for the property (now $260,000). Only thing is that you would have to now proportion the refinanced amount between the deductible amount on property 1 ($260,000) and the extra $100,000 which was borrowed to pay off property 2.

Certainly moving into property 2 affects deductions for that property. No rental income, no deductions.

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Most helpful reply

Taxduck(Taxicorn)Taxicorn
27 May 2024

Nothing would change with interest deductions for property 1. Still only able to claim the original borrowed amount for the property (now $260,000). Only thing is that you would have to now proportion the refinanced amount between the deductible amount on property 1 ($260,000) and the extra $100,000 which was borrowed to pay off property 2.

Certainly moving into property 2 affects deductions for that property. No rental income, no deductions.

true_girt(Newbie)Newbie
27 May 2024

Thanks, I appreciate the advice.

To clarify, I am aware I would no longer claim the outstanding ($100,000) finance on property 2 as it is no longer income producing. But would I be able to claim the full $360,000 on property 1? It would still be an IP, and would still be income producing.

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