Hi.
My questions relate to the capital gain or loss on sale of a residential property held for 10 years, used as a private holiday home with no main residence exemption.
For a simplified example.
Purchase price and stamp duty = $1.2m
Holding costs during period of ownership not deducted elsewhere = $240,000
Incidental costs of buying or selling = $50,000
Capital proceeds = $1.45m
When I calculate the capital gain/loss using the cost base, less capital proceeds, I end up with a loss of $40,000.
When I complete a second calculation using the reduced cost base, that is removing the holding costs, less capital proceeds, I end up with a capital gain of $200,000.
- When calculating the capital gain or loss, do I utilise the holding costs eg council rates, water rates, building insurances up to a nil capital gain result? In this example, to reduce the gain to nil, I utilise $200,000 of the holding costs of $240,000.
- What happens to the balance of holding costs not utlised is the calculation of the capital gain? eg $240,000 less $200,000 = $40,000.
Many thanks for any kind assistance.