We are getting an accountant to advise too, but are trying to understand the rules.
When we beneficiaries of inherited CGT assets (investment property worth $500k and shares worth $60k) sell them, does it make any difference to the CGT liability amounts:
a) whether we beneficiaries sell them and pay the CGT, or the estate does? Is it the same CGT liability and 50% discount for the investment property regardless, or eg do beneficiaries only incur CGT liability from the time of inheritance, not from when parents' purchased it?
b) when we sell- straightaway, or is there a "hold for longer than 12 months" rule for us to get CGT discount?
Then, is it potentially tax effective to stagger the sales of the investment property and shares across FYs to flatten out the sudden increases to our taxable incomes?